Reply to "Comment on 'Separability of quantum states and the violation of Bell-type inequalities'"

It is stated by C. Simon, quant-ph/0410032, that the definition of "classicality" used in quant-ph/0310116 is "much narrower than Bell's concept of local hidden variables" and that, in the separable quantum case, the validity of the perfect correlation form of the original Bell inequality is necessarily linked with "the assumption of perfect correlations if the same (quantum) observable is measured on both sides". Here, I prove that these and other statements in quant-ph/0410032 are misleading.